Is there something Qere going on with the KJV?

The KJV was not perfectly translated at all. It is claimed that the Old Testament comes from the Masoretic text through the Latin. But if this is possible why does Psalm 22;16 contradict the MT version if compared to the KJV? Its because its not. They had to change certain scriptures in the KJV so that it could match up with what the Greek and Latin Bibles stated in regards to Jesus' claimed Messianic prophecies. This is a great question.